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Jeremy
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Post by Jeremy »

Flyah wrote:
Jeremy wrote: Do you think the devil even wanted to tempt Jesus?
Yes, I believe the devil wanted to tempt Jesus. Did the devil know that Jesus would succeed ni overcoming the temptations - remember that the devil is not omniscient. If Satan could've actually got Jesus to sin - the world as we know it would not exist.

All that said and to prevent anouther dialogue from taking place - I do not believe that Jesus could've sinned.
Good, I was starting to wonder. :)

Jesus is God. God cannot sin. So yeah, I think Satan knew that Jesus couldn't sin. Remember how the demons would just tremble at Jesus' presence, declare Him to be the Son of God, and beg Him "don't torment us," "don't cast us into the Abyss," etc.? Satan is merely a demon, an evil angel--nothing greater. A "powerless" demon would not like to be in Jesus' presence.

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Flyah
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Post by Flyah »

Why would Satan even bother tempting Jesus, if he knew he couldn't sin? I think Satan was so deceived that he thought he could make Jesus fall. The temptation was real.
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Eugene Blackgaard
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Post by Eugene Blackgaard »

Flyah wrote:Why would Satan even bother tempting Jesus, if he knew he couldn't sin? I think Satan was so deceived that he thought he could make Jesus fall. The temptation was real.
Now that I agree with. ;)
However, I'm still working on some notes on a few issues, I'll get them here soon. :)
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Frank
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Post by Frank »

Hey Flyah or anyone else...I watched the movie "Finding Neverland" last night and want to know what sort of lesson they were trying to pull off. (It was somewhat confusing.)
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Flyah
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Post by Flyah »

I have not seen the movie
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JesusFreak777
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Post by JesusFreak777 »

My question appears to have gotten lost in the election discussion, so I will repost it.


JesusFreak777 wrote:I have a couple of questions. Right now I have been reading in 1 Corinthians where Paul is talking about the roles of women. (Chapter 11 among others, I think) I would not call myself a femmenist by any means, but I was kind of annoyed at the views on women that Paul writes about. My question is, where does Paul end and the Lord begin? Is all of this still applicable today, or was it simply for that time period, and how do you know?

I do have another question/consern that I would appreciate your advice on, but I do not quite know how to phrase it. I will pm it to you instead, and if you like you can then post it here. Hopefully this will make sense when i figure out how to phrase it and then send it to you.

Thanks so much Flyah.
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Methodius
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Post by Methodius »

Eugene Blackgaard wrote:Ah, I see. And I suppose many men would feel silly/ashamed having hair down to their back. What I don't agree with is that it is wrongful to have hair that is a bit longer than the average man. I believe the scripture should be taken into context, the people Paul was writing to at the time had a large homosexual culture group, where the gay men would have hair down to their backs, and the gey women would have short hair to promote their homosexuality.

I disagree with the claim of that passage of scripture being a commandment. I believe it is merely advice giveb by Paul, not God's law.

Anyways, Flyah, I had another question. I know a friend who believes not all scripture applies to us (the believers). He says that Christians are wrong by applying Jeremiah 29:11 "For I know the thoughts I think towards you, saith the Lord, thoughts of peace and not evil, to give you a future and a hope" to themselves. He says that scripture only applies to Jeremiah, and Christians shouldn't take this scripture as their own.

What do you think? While he is an esteemed colleuge of mine, I personally disagree with his line of thinking.
Eugene,

This really captured my attention for the apparent irony that I saw. This is not designed to condemn you but to get you thinking.

"I believe the scripture should be taken into context, the people Paul was writing to at the time had a large homosexual culture group, where the gay men would have hair down to their backs, and the gey women would have short hair to promote their homosexuality."
If that is taken as true, could you argue today that long hair would identify a man with the hippy culture? People here might have differing viewpoints on the hippies but many do not associate that movement with Christian values. If we took this passage as only necessary if it’s possible to be identified with the wrong group I'd suggest we might have a case today. This is not an expression about my beliefs regarding hair. It is an analysis on how your words should be applied.

"I disagree with the claim of that passage of scripture being a commandment. I believe it is merely advice giveb by Paul, not God's law."
This really grabbed my attention. I try to look at the Bible from the basis of 2 Timothy 3:16-17. When there is a passage that I don't understand I like to ask why God included it in the Bible as inspired. Paul wrote it but God included it. We have a history of the ancient Jewish culture and all their laws. We don't follow all those laws now. Is the same thing happening in the New Testament? Paul handing out decrees that we only look at now as preserved fact and not an affect our actions?

"Anyways, Flyah, I had another question. I know a friend who believes not all scripture applies to us (the believers). He says that Christians are wrong by applying Jeremiah 29:11 "For I know the thoughts I think towards you, saith the Lord, thoughts of peace and not evil, to give you a future and a hope" to themselves. He says that scripture only applies to Jeremiah, and Christians shouldn't take this scripture as their own."
This is were I felt the strong sense of irony. God said that to Jeremiah but you believe it can apply now. Nothing wrong with that in my opinion but I don't see how we can claim what God said to Jeremiah and not what Paul said to the church. Does this make any sense? How much of the Bible do we think of as still applicable today and why? How can we discern what is and what isn't applicable?

It is my aim that this will not cause resentment but study.

In His Service,
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Eugene Blackgaard
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Post by Eugene Blackgaard »

Whilts I still do not believe there is enough proof for it being a commandment, and while I don't have time to expound right now, I do have a quote from some guy named Doug. 0_o

I mostly agree with what he has to say, and I think it helps us put the Scripture into context. Context is important. Failing to take scripture into context and to fail to see the whole scope of the Bible, not just a few verses, is what causes people to believe that if one os not Baptized they are heading for hell, regardless if Jesus is their Lord.

Anyways, and now... Doug.
Doug wrote:]The passage in 1 Cor. 11 compares the natural order of things with the spiritual order. In the natural order men have shorter hair, women have longer. To violate this violates nature. There can be no question about this: "If a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him…" (vs.14). Even so, the passage is speaking of covering the head while praying or prophesying, which I believe relates to the use of spiritual gifts in public (i.e., public praying and prophesying). The woman’s hair, however long it may be and suited for the natural, is not sufficient for the spiritual. She needs to be veiled. The man should not be veiled. Just as it is a dishonor for a woman to have short hair in nature (because her hair is her glory in that realm), it is a dishonor for her to be unveiled when praying or prophesying. The same thing applies to the man, except in the opposite (short hair/unveiled). This means that when the spiritual gifts ended, the command regarding veiling would be superfluous. However, since nature is still nature (and nature hasn’t ended!), it continues to be a dishonor to women for their hair to be short as it is for a man’s hair to be long.The question is: How long and how short? During the OT times, God gave instructions to those who would take the vow of a Nazirite and in that instruction he commanded that no hair should be cut (Num. 6:5). Since God would not contradict Himself in the things of "nature," the instructions in 1 Corinthians must apply to a man’s hair "hanging down," inasmuch as the Nazirites’ hair, although long, apparently did not hang down in the manner of women's hair, but was tied in "locks." The most famous Nazirite was Samson. Although no razor had touched his head since birth, his hair was fastened with "7 locks" (judges 16:13-15). The word "locks" is never used in the Bible with regard to a woman's hair. Hence, if a man has hair that "hangs down" especially so that from appearances it appears to be the hair of a woman, his hair is too long. Conversely, if a woman’s hair appears as a man’s, it is too short.
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Flyah
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Post by Flyah »

JesusFreak777 wrote:My question appears to have gotten lost in the election discussion, so I will repost it.


JesusFreak777 wrote:I have a couple of questions. Right now I have been reading in 1 Corinthians where Paul is talking about the roles of women. (Chapter 11 among others, I think) I would not call myself a femmenist by any means, but I was kind of annoyed at the views on women that Paul writes about. My question is, where does Paul end and the Lord begin? Is all of this still applicable today, or was it simply for that time period, and how do you know?

I do have another question/consern that I would appreciate your advice on, but I do not quite know how to phrase it. I will pm it to you instead, and if you like you can then post it here. Hopefully this will make sense when i figure out how to phrase it and then send it to you.

Thanks so much Flyah.
I'm sorry I haven't gotten around to answering this question - let me ponder it for a day or so and get back with you, okay?
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JesusFreak777
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Post by JesusFreak777 »

Great, thanks a bunch Flyah. I truley appreciate it.
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Alleycat
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Post by Alleycat »

Doug wrote:]The passage in 1 Cor. 11 compares the natural order of things with the spiritual order. In the natural order men have shorter hair, women have longer. To violate this violates nature. There can be no question about this: "If a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him…" (vs.14). Even so, the passage is speaking of covering the head while praying or prophesying, which I believe relates to the use of spiritual gifts in public (i.e., public praying and prophesying). The woman’s hair, however long it may be and suited for the natural, is not sufficient for the spiritual. She needs to be veiled. The man should not be veiled. Just as it is a dishonor for a woman to have short hair in nature (because her hair is her glory in that realm), it is a dishonor for her to be unveiled when praying or prophesying. The same thing applies to the man, except in the opposite (short hair/unveiled). This means that when the spiritual gifts ended, the command regarding veiling would be superfluous. However, since nature is still nature (and nature hasn’t ended!), it continues to be a dishonor to women for their hair to be short as it is for a man’s hair to be long.The question is: How long and how short? During the OT times, God gave instructions to those who would take the vow of a Nazirite and in that instruction he commanded that no hair should be cut (Num. 6:5). Since God would not contradict Himself in the things of "nature," the instructions in 1 Corinthians must apply to a man’s hair "hanging down," inasmuch as the Nazirites’ hair, although long, apparently did not hang down in the manner of women's hair, but was tied in "locks." The most famous Nazirite was Samson. Although no razor had touched his head since birth, his hair was fastened with "7 locks" (judges 16:13-15). The word "locks" is never used in the Bible with regard to a woman's hair. Hence, if a man has hair that "hangs down" especially so that from appearances it appears to be the hair of a woman, his hair is too long. Conversely, if a woman’s hair appears as a man’s, it is too short.
Wow. That made me re-think. :-s
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Eugene Blackgaard
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Post by Eugene Blackgaard »

Good ol' Doug. ;)
Not sure who he is, but I just quoted a guy named Doug on another site. I don't agree with him 100%, but he's pretty solid.

What happened to Methodius? :(
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Jeffro
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Post by Jeffro »

OK. I have a question that might make you laguh a little. What do you think the Bible says about Shellfish, and eating them?
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Jeremy
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Post by Jeremy »

"Eat anything sold in the meat market without raising questions of conscience, for, 'The earth is the Lord's, and everything in it.'" (1 Corinthians 10:25-26 NIV.)
Jeffro
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Post by Jeffro »

Thanks. That makes sence. I looked on Bible gateway, and found this:

Numbers 11:22:
Would they have enough if all the fish in the sea were caught for them?

Why would God say to Moses "If all the fish in the sea were caught for them", which probaly refers to them eating the fish, why would fish of the sea not be allowed to be eaten.

Thanks for your input! :D
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